Q1. Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is equal to
- A.BCWP / BCWS✓ Correct
- B.BCWP * BCWS
- C.BCWP + BCWS
- D.BCWP - BCWS
Q2. The progress on a project at any given point in time can be calculated by:
- A.Adding all the BCWS till that point for all tasks✓ Correct
- B.Multiplying all the BCWS till that point for all tasks
- C.Adding BCWS and EVA for all tasks till that point
- D.None of given options
Q3. Earned Value Analysis (EVA) is a _ technique for assessing the progress of a project.
- A.Qualitative
- B.Quantitative✓ Correct
- C.Subjective
- D.None of the given options
Q4. BCWS for a task i will be equal to:
- A.Risks appeared in task i
- B.Effort (person-days etc) for task I✓ Correct
- C.Resource deficiency for task i
- D.None of the given options
Q5. SQA is an umbrella activity in which following activities are performed EXCEPT
- A.Review
- B.Testing
- C.Project Planning
- D.Inspection✓ Correct
Q6. Poka Yoke is the name of a
- A.Japanese dish
- B.QA technique✓ Correct
- C.Idiom
- D.None of the given
Q7. FTR stands for:
- A.Feasibility of technical requirement
- B.Fetched Technical Requirement
- C.Formal Technical Review✓ Correct
- D.None of the given options
Q8. Following are effective guidelines for Review except
- A.We need to review the product not the producer
- B.Be sensitive to personal egos
- C.Errors should be pointed out gently
- D.Tone should be high and strict✓ Correct
Q9. In order to use the Pert and CPM, which one of the following is not required?
- A.Decomposition of tasks - also known as the work breakdown structure (WBS)
- B.Teams communication mode detail✓ Correct
- C.Estimation of effort
- D.inter dependencies
Q10. A law affirming that to continue after a certain level of performance has been reached will result in a decline in effectiveness. This law is know as __________________
- A.Law of Diminishing returns✓ Correct
- B.Law of effectiveness
- C.Law of Saturation
- D.Law of Marketing returns
Q11. Basic project management process are established at level of CMM
- A.Chaotic
- B.Initial
- C.Level 1
- D.Repeatable✓ Correct
Q12. Which of these is not a valid reason for measuring software processes, products, and resources?
- A.to price them✓ Correct
- B.to improve them
- C.to characterize them
- D.to evaluate them
Q13. The rapid application development model is
- A.Another name for component-based development.
- B.A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly
- C.A high speed adaptation of the linear sequential model.✓ Correct
- D.All of the given
Q14. Testing and Software Quality Assurance activities are exactly similar activities with different names
Q15. Usually the performance of the organization change over-night.
Q16. Following are the implicit requirement(s) of software?
- A.Efficiency
- B.Ease of use
- C.Maintainability
- D.All of the given✓ Correct
Q17. Following are the types of Formal Technical Reviews except
- A.Inspection
- B.JAD✓ Correct
- C.Walkthrough
- D.Peer Review
Q18. The Review participants should not focus on
- A.Work product
- B.Weaknesses of the developer✓ Correct
- C.Time lines
- D.Review agenda
Q19. Review meeting is attended by the following except
- A.Review leader
- B.All reviewers
- C.CEO✓ Correct
- D.Product Producer
Q20. Which statement is true in the light of Pareto principle?
- A.80% of defects are caused by 20 % of mistakes✓ Correct
- B.20% of defects are caused by 80 % of mistakes
- C.50% of defects are caused by 50% of mistakes
- D.100% of defects are caused by coding errors
Q21. Reliability and Safety are same concepts with respect to software quality
Q22. If a new version of a product is released by fixing the bugs in the previous release then it is termed as
- A.Product Update✓ Correct
- B.Product Upgrade
- C.Defect Removal
- D.Product Performance
Q23. The Evolution Graph signifies the
- A.version relationship (SE-PRESSMAN, )✓ Correct
- B.baseline of a particular release
- C.change control activity
- D.all of the given
Q24. If you know the relationship between the use cases, classes, GUIs, Test cases and other artifacts then we can say that requirements are traceable in that project.
Q25. Following are the components of a Legacy system except:
- A.business processes
- B.system hardware
- C.marketing✓ Correct
- D.application software
Q26. There are many reasons for which the legacy system become difficult to maintain EXCEPT
- A.Language in which system was developed become obsolete
- B.lack of consistency as different parts of the system have been developed by different teams
- C.None of these
- D.No documentation is available✓ Correct
Q27. Large classes reduces
- A.Cohesion✓ Correct
- B.Coupling
- C.Consistency
- D.Chains
Q28. Level _________ is the lowest capability level of CMMI in Continuous representation
Q29. In representation of CMMI model, consideration is given to improve selected processes areas.
- A.Staged✓ Correct
- B.Continuous
- C.Iterative
- D.Incremental
Q30. Empirical models are statistical models and are based upon historic data
Q31. Two tools for computing critical path and project completion times from activity networks are
- A.CPM and PERT✓ Correct
- B.DRE and SQA
- C.FP and LOC
- D.ASD and BS
Q32. In order to measure the design quality, if the frequency of ripple defects is too large, then it means that there is tight coupling and hence the
- A.design is maintainable
- B.design is not maintainable✓ Correct
- C.design has completed
- D.none of the given
Q33. The only reason for an estimate to be unreliable is lack of experience related to the application on the part of the estimator.
Q34. A consideration of software scope must include an evaluation of all external interfaces.
Q35. Software quality is conformance to _
- A.Explicitly stated functional and non functionasl requirements✓ Correct
- B.Explicitly documented developement standrads
- C.Implicit characteristics that all the professional software are expectd to have
- D.All of the given options
Q36. _ Subgroups are those that the user has the option of using one or none of the subgroups during an elementary process.
- A.Optional✓ Correct
- B.Mandatory
- C.None of the Given
- D.RET
Q37. Process discipline is unlikely to be rigorous, but where it exists it may help to ensure that existing processes are maintained during times of stress and this is done at CMM level ------ --.
Q38. Which one of the following activities does not belong to Risk Mitigation, Monitoring, and Management Plan?
- A.Risk Projection✓ Correct
- B.Risk Mitigation
- C.Risk avoidance
- D.Risk Management and Contingency Planning
Q39. Which one of the following principles/techniques is NOT software projects scheduling? Interdependency identification
- A.Time allocation
- B.Effort validation
- C.Function point analysis✓ Correct
- D.Milestone definition
Q40. With a complex class you have to move data and methods around in small pieces to avoid errors, it seems slow but it is the because you avoid debugging
- A.Quickest✓ Correct
- B.Problem
- C.None of the given
- D.Slowest
Q41. The purpose of earned value analysis is to
- A.determine how to compensate developers based on their productivity
- B.provide a quantitative means of assessing software project progress✓ Correct
- C.provide a qualitative means of assessing software project progress
- D.set the price point for a software product based on development effort
Q42. The RMMM plan assists the project team in developing strategy for dealing with risk. In this context, an effective strategy must consider:
- A.Risk avoidance
- B.Risk monitoring
- C.Risk management and contingency plan
- D.All of the given choices✓ Correct
Q43. After building the Decision Tree, following formula is used to find the expected cost for an option. Choose the correct formula:
- A.Expected Cost= (path probability)i * (estimated path cost)✓ Correct
- B.Expected Cost= (path probability)i / (estimated path cost)
- C.Expected Cost= (path probability)i + (estimated path cost)
- D.Expected Cost= (path probability)i - (estimated path cost)
Q44. Degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use is the
- A.Cost risks
- B.Schedule risks
- C.Performance risks✓ Correct
- D.None of the given choices
Q45. Every task or group of tasks should be associated with a project --------- --.
- A.Schedule
- B.Member
- C.Manager
- D.Milestone✓ Correct
Q46. Every task should be assigned to a specific team ---------- --.
- A.Member✓ Correct
- B.Manager
- C.Organizer
- D.None of the given
Q47. Which one is not the Software project planning activity carried out by the project manager for estimation?
- A.Software scope estimation
- B.Resources requirements
- C.Time requirements
- D.Product Quality✓ Correct
Q48. Incomplete Configuration identification documents may result in:
- A.Schedule Product
- B.all of the given choices are correct✓ Correct
- C.Defective Product
- D.Higher Maintenance Costs
Q49. Proactive risk management philosophy is also some times termed as Indiana Jones school of risk management
- A.true
- B.false (✓ Correct
- C.true (reactive)
- D.Partially true
Q50. Software Availability can be calculated by the following equation
- A.Availability = (MTTR/MTTF) x 100
- B.Availability = (MTBF/MTTR) x 100
- C.Availability = (MTTF/MTBF) x 100✓ Correct
- D.Availability = (MTBF/MTTF) x 100
Q51. The higher the Error Index, the higher will be the Defect Removal Efficiency
Q52. The goal of quality assurance is to provide management with the data needed to determine which software engineers are producing the most defects.
Q53. From the following listed software development Model, which one is an object oriented model
- A.Classical life cycle model
- B.Fountain model✓ Correct
- C.Spiral model
- D.Waterfall model
Q54. The prototyping model of software development is
- A.a reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
- B.A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.✓ Correct
- C.the best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
- D.a risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.
Q55. Which one of the following does not belong to a strategy for dealing with risk?
- A.Risk avoidance
- B.Security risk assessment✓ Correct
- C.Risk monitoring
- D.Risk management and Contingency planning
Q56. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project?
- A.context, lines of code, function
- B.context, function, communication requirements
- C.information objectives, function, performance✓ Correct
- D.communications requirements, performance, information objectives
Q57. In a team is structured along a traditional hierarchy of authority
- A.closed paradigm✓ Correct
- B.synchronous paradigm
- C.random paradigm
- D.open paradigm
Q58. Integrity means that the software should
- A.help the users to enjoy usability
- B.none of the given
- C.Withstand the attack from a hacker✓ Correct
- D.Be easy to maintain
Q59. Ambiguous requirements can be measured quantitatively
Q60. While performing risk analysis, the impact of risk can not be measured quantitatively
Q61. For software the total numbers of requirements are equal to _ .
- A.Functional requirements
- B.non-functional requirements
- C.Functional requirements and non-functional requirements✓ Correct
- D.User requirements only
Q62. The level 1 of CMM is known as
- A.Managed
- B.Defined
- C.Initial✓ Correct
- D.Repeatable
Q63. According to DeMarco a good Project Manger
- A.should be very nervous
- B.should be very strict in official matters
- C.should not ignore any mistake from his team members.
- D.should have a big heart and should ignore small mistakes✓ Correct
Q64. The best project team organizational model to use when tackling extremely difficult problems is the
- A.chief programmer team model
- B.democratic decentralized model✓ Correct
- C.controlled centralized model
- D.controlled decentralized model
Q65. Which factor is the least important when choosing the organizational structure for a software team?
- A.degree of communication desired
- B.predicted size of the resulting program
- C.rigidity of the delivery date
- D.size of the project budget✓ Correct
Q66. The number of people required for a software project is determined
- A.after an estimate of the development effort is made.✓ Correct
- B.from an assessment of the technical complexity of the system.
- C.by the size of the project
- D.all of the given
Q67. Defect Removal Efficiency (DRE) can be measured by where E is Errors found delivery and D is error found after delivery (typically within the first year of operation)
- A.DRE= E/(E+D)✓ Correct
- B.DRE= E - (E+D)
- C.DRE= E * (E+D)
- D.None of the given
Q68. In function point analysis technique EO stands for
- A.Export operation
- B.Export output
- C.External output✓ Correct
- D.None of these
Q69. In a team is structured loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team members
- A.Random paradigm✓ Correct
- B.closed paradigm
- C.synchronous paradigm
- D.open paradigm
Q70. Software process and product quality are controlled at _ .
- A.level 1
- B.initial level
- C.level-4✓ Correct
- D.level-3
Q71. QA is an activity performed of the software development.
- A.at the initial stage
- B.at the final stage
- C.throughout✓ Correct
- D.at the middle
Q72. Caper Jones divided software related activities into different categories.
- A.35
- B.40
- C.20
- D.25✓ Correct
Q73. By default every organization is working at _
- A.level 1✓ Correct
- B.level 0
- C.level 3
- D.level 4
Q74. Software Engineering is the set of and _ to develop software.
- A.languages , processes
- B.classes ,objects
- C.processes, tools✓ Correct
- D.tools, objects
Q75. Software has very close relationship with
- A.Biology
- B.Physics
- C.chemistry
- D.Economics✓ Correct
Q76. Caper Jones is famous researcher in the field of who made a company named Software Productivity Research
- A.Biology
- B.Chemistry
- C.Mathematics
- D.Software Engineering✓ Correct
Q77. In model user feedback is received very quickly because product is delivered in small versions.
- A.waterfall
- B.spiral
- C.incremental✓ Correct
- D.object oriented
Q78. Construction activities are directly related to the _ of the software.
- A.Installation
- B.risk analysis
- C.development✓ Correct
- D.debugging
Q79. Continuous process improvement is enabled by feedback from the
- A.analytical , user
- B.mathematical, user
- C.logical, process
- D.qualitative , process✓ Correct
Q80. The major activities related to software construction are
- A.requirement gathering, design development, coding and testing✓ Correct
- B.installation and training
- C.quality assurance, configuration and planning
- D.implementation and management
Q81. If requirements are uncertain, will be a suitable.
- A.Incremental
- B.RAD
- C.Waterfall✓ Correct
- D.Prototype
Q82. Capability maturity model (CMM) is used to judge the _ model of an organization.
- A.Efficiency
- B.Performance
- C.Productivity
- D.Maturity✓ Correct
Q83. Defects per function points are a metric.
- A.One✓ Correct
- B.Two
- C.Three
- D.Four
Q84. In Capability Maturity Model (CMM), performs optimization.
- A.level1
- B.level 2
- C.level3
- D.level5✓ Correct
Q85. Defining a |Task Network| helps in defining
- A.The resources required for project
- B.Third party tool required for project
- C.Sequence in which activities will be performed✓ Correct
- D.None of these
Q86. The first step in project planning is to
- A.Determine the budget.
- B.Select a team organizational model.
- C.Determine the project constraints.
- D.Establish the objectives and scope.✓ Correct
Q87. Function Point analysis is helpful in calculating the size of the software for _
- A.Both client and software organization
- B.Software organization
- C.Client
- D.User✓ Correct
Q88. BCWS stands for:
- A.Budgeted cost of whole System
- B.Budgeted cost of work schedule✓ Correct
- C.None of the given options
- D.Budgeted cost of work performed
Q89. BCWP refers to:
- A.Normalized value of budgeted cost
- B.Overall expected cost of the project (anticipated cost)
- C.Budgeted cost of work performed so far✓ Correct
- D.Overall cost of the project (calculated after completion of project)
Q90. Which statement is correct?
- A.The greater the dependency between the components the greater is coupling for✓ Correct
- B.The lesser the dependency between the components the greater is coupling
- C.The greater the dependency between the components the lesser is coupling
- D.None of the given
Q91. Review is a type of that helps preventing the bugs to move in the next stage of software development Bug seeding tool
- A.Filter✓ Correct
- B.Alarm
- C.Bug seeding tool
- D.Gate
Q92. Poka Yoke is Japanese term and it means
- A.Mistake Proofing✓ Correct
- B.Mistake Handling
- C.Mistake identification
- D.Mistake assurance
Q93. Which is not correct in the context of Poka-Yoke technique?
- A.Simple and cheap
- B.Sophisticated and expensive✓ Correct
- C.Part of Process
- D.Indication point should be near to the place where the problem occurred
Q94. If Configuration item identification is not identified, it is possible to control changes and establish records.
Q95. When an Item is baselined, it becomes frozen, here frozen means, that the item can be changed only by creating an old version
Q96. Object un-lock is done by
- A.check in✓ Correct
- B.check out
- C.both check-in and check-out
- D.none of the given
Q97. Legacy system migration is usually hard. One important reason is that no proper documentation of the system is available
Q98. While assessing a legacy system for further decision, one should decide the following about the supplier
- A.Is supplier still in existence?
- B.Is supplier still in business?
- C.Is supplier can provide support?
- D.All of the given✓ Correct
Q99. The application software is assessed on the basis of following factors except
- A.Documentation
- B.Understandability
- C.Code Refactoring✓ Correct
- D.Test data
Q100. We modify the internal in code re-structuring
- A.interface
- B.design✓ Correct
- C.data structure
- D.functionality
Q101. “A method requires lot of information from some other class” is a symptom of bad smell
- A.Data clumps
- B.Lazy class
- C.Feature envy✓ Correct
- D.Long Method
Q102. FAST is the abbreviation of
- A.Facilitated Application Specification Technology
- B.Facilitated Application Specification Technique✓ Correct
- C.Facilitated Application Specialization Technique
- D.None of the above option
Q103. Although there are many different models developed by different researchers for estimation, all of them share which one of the following basic structure
- A.E = 3.2 (KLOC)1.05
- B.E = A + B * (ev)C✓ Correct
- C.E = [LOC x B0.333/P]3 x (1/t4)
- D.none of the given
Q104. A is a user recognizable subgroup of data elements within an ILF or EIF
- A.Record element type (RET)✓ Correct
- B.Data Element Type
- C.External Input
- D.External Query
Q105. Any delay in _____ path makes the whole project delayed.
- A.Logical
- B.Neural
- C.Physical
- D.Critical✓ Correct
Q106. The responsibilities of a Project Manager does not include
- A.Make a schedule of project
- B.Allocate tasks to the resources
- C.Monitoring the tasks
- D.All these options✓ Correct
Q107. The boundary time defines the following parameter(s) for a project
- A.the latest time for task initastion before the minimum project completion time is delayed
- B.The earliest finish
- C.The latest finish
- D.All of the given options✓ Correct
Q108. Quality is the compliance of software to implicit and explicit quality factors. Identify the explicit requirement from the following:
- A.Maintainability
- B.Compliance with CMMI✓ Correct
- C.Ease of use
- D.Efficiency
Q109. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the
- A.Time when system remained unable for usage
- B.Time taken to fix the error
- C.Time taken to repair the software✓ Correct
- D.All of the given options are correct.
Q110. SCM is the requirement of the ________ level(s) of CMM
- A.First
- B.Second and later
- C.Third and later
- D.Only Second✓ Correct
Q111. We can include following items during configuration item identification
- A.User Manuals and Documentations
- B.Source Code
- C.Software Requirement Specifications
- D.All of the given choices are correct✓ Correct
Q112. The Change Control Authority does not have the rights to permit to bring the change in the software
Q113. Check in and check out is actually one and the same process with two different names
Q114. There could be multiple GUIs to satisfy one requirement
Q115. In code restructuring, we do not change the functionality of the code
Q116. A process is “a set of logically related tasks performed to achieve a defined business outcome”.
- A.Business✓ Correct
- B.Software
- C.CMM
- D.ISO
Q117. Software Refactoring is a process in which
- A.External behavior of the system does not change✓ Correct
- B.Internal behavior of the system does not change
- C.Design of the software changes
- D.Architecture of the software changes
Q118. The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical methods to
- A.define the specification for computer-based systems
- B.all of the given✓ Correct
- C.develop defect free computer-based systems
- D.verify the correctness of computer-based systems
Q119. Which one of the following describes the data and control to be processed, function, performance, constraints, interfaces, and reliability?
- A.Product Quality
- B.Software scope estimation✓ Correct
- C.Resources requirements
- D.Time requirements
Q120. A significant SQA plan, among others, should include:
- A.Resources required for project✓ Correct
- B.Error tracking procedures
- C.Phases required in application development process
- D.None of the given option
Showing the first 120 of 162 MCQs.